I thought about this earlier today, and come home to find markusin has posted something similar. But I will expound my slightly differently-nuanced view:
So, the problem is that we are trying to evaluate card X and card Y, etc. But the first copy of card X will not have the same value as the 8th copy. So the 1st Sea Hag is better than the first Monument, the 4th Monument is definitely better than the 4th Sea Hag.
So this would lead us to consider sets of cards, {3 Sea Hag, 1 Monument}>{4 Sea Hag}, I am not going to list out so many combinations. But this fails, too, for a few reasons. First, accessibility of the different sets; this is very dependent on cost, of course, but also what the cards do - it is harder to get to 3 hag+monument than 1 hag+3 monument (in a vacuum). Second, your opponent is doing stuff, too; there's attacks here, there's losing splits here, and there's denial here, i.e. it's not so much about what gives you the best set, it's about what makes your set most better than the opponent's set. Third, it doesn't actually give us a way to evaluate which card is better than the other - if the optimal configuration is 2x monument + 1 sea hag, which of these cards is more important? You can try figuring out taking which one out most hurts you, but because of the non-conservative way these things add to value, it's not clear that such an approach would actually answer the question.
One thing I find intriguing is that strictly speaking the ranking (a) is useless. You never want to compare two cards directly when they are not both in a game. But just because of its closeness to (c) that is what HMM suggested, which is an ordered list, it becomes more useful than (b).
I guess after all it's too hard for human mind to put something of O(N^2) instead of O(N) into perspective...
Strictly speaking, this post, the entire discussion, these forums, the game, all of it is useless. Oh wait, usefulness is a value judgement...
Clearly, some people
do 'want to compare two cards directly when they are not both in a game'.
I am not sure that I understand what your last point is supposed to mean; surely you can't generalize this at all and would really rather just say that IN THIS CASE, 'the human mind' (also an over-generalization; clearly some human minds exist which this isn't true for) much more lends itself to the 'linear' problem in question rather than the 'quadratic' problem in question.
I mean, if we are just using O(n), the size of n as well as any coefficients, lower order effects, etc. are surely going to come into play when talking about human minds - right?